A 29-year-old woman presents to the gynecologist for recommendations regarding her abnormal Pap smear last week. She has a normal menstrual cycle and has never been pregnant. She does not take oral contraceptive pills because she is not sexually active. She denies the use of any illicit drugs. Conventional cytology revealed findings suggestive of a low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL), as shown in the photograph. The same test 3 years ago demonstrated normal findings. What is the most likely process leading to the results of this patient’s Pap smear?